Medical Surgical Nursing MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Medical Surgical Nursing - Download Free PDF
Last updated on Jun 24, 2025
Latest Medical Surgical Nursing MCQ Objective Questions
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 1:
In the immediate post-operative period, how frequently should vital signs be monitored?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Every 15 minutes
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 1 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Every 15 minutes
Rationale:
- Monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes in the immediate post-operative period is a standard protocol in most healthcare settings. This frequent monitoring is crucial because the immediate post-operative period is a critical phase when patients are most vulnerable to complications such as bleeding, respiratory distress, or hemodynamic instability.
- Vital signs include blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Tracking these parameters every 15 minutes allows healthcare providers to quickly detect abnormalities or deteriorations in the patient's condition and intervene promptly.
- The first few hours after surgery are particularly high-risk due to the lingering effects of anesthesia, surgical stress on the body, and potential adverse events such as hemorrhage, shock, or airway complications.
- Frequent monitoring ensures patient safety and supports the recovery process by providing real-time data that guides clinical decisions.
Explanation of Other Options:
Once per hour
- Rationale: Monitoring vital signs once per hour is not frequent enough during the immediate post-operative period. While hourly checks may be appropriate later during the recovery phase, it does not provide the necessary vigilance in the critical early hours when complications are most likely to occur.
Twice per shift
- Rationale: Checking vital signs twice per shift is far too infrequent for the immediate post-operative phase. This frequency is typically reserved for stable patients who are well into the recovery process or under long-term care, rather than those at high risk of acute post-operative complications.
Every 6 hours
- Rationale: Monitoring vital signs every 6 hours is insufficient for post-operative patients in the immediate recovery phase. Such a schedule is used for stable patients who have minimal risk of complications, but not for those who require close supervision after surgery.
Conclusion:
- Monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes is the recommended protocol during the immediate post-operative period. This ensures timely detection of complications, supports rapid intervention, and promotes patient safety. Other options, such as hourly or less frequent monitoring, are inadequate for this critical phase and should only be considered for stable patients further along in their recovery.
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 2:
What is the main reason for monitoring blood pressure closely after bypass surgery?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : To prevent collapse of grafts and suture line bleeding
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 2 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: To prevent collapse of grafts and suture line bleeding
Rationale:
- After bypass surgery, maintaining stable blood pressure is critical to ensure proper healing and avoid complications. The newly created grafts and suture lines are delicate, and any significant deviation in blood pressure can jeopardize their integrity.
- High blood pressure (hypertension) can exert excessive pressure on the suture lines and grafts, increasing the risk of bleeding and potentially causing life-threatening complications such as hemorrhage.
- Low blood pressure (hypotension), on the other hand, can lead to insufficient blood flow through the grafts, causing them to collapse or fail. This may result in inadequate perfusion to the heart muscle and other vital organs, leading to ischemia or organ damage.
- By closely monitoring and managing blood pressure, healthcare providers can mitigate these risks and promote optimal recovery after bypass surgery.
Explanation of Other Options:
To monitor sleep pattern
- Rationale: Monitoring sleep patterns is not a primary concern immediately after bypass surgery. While rest and sleep are important for recovery, they are not directly related to blood pressure monitoring. Blood pressure management focuses on preventing physical complications like graft failure and bleeding.
To assess renal function
- Rationale: While blood pressure can influence kidney function, especially in cases of prolonged hypotension or hypertension, the primary reason for monitoring blood pressure after bypass surgery is related to the safety of the grafts and suture lines. Renal function is generally monitored through laboratory tests, such as serum creatinine and urine output, rather than blood pressure alone.
To reduce pain
- Rationale: Pain management is a separate aspect of post-operative care. While elevated pain levels can indirectly affect blood pressure, the primary purpose of monitoring blood pressure is to prevent complications related to the grafts and suture lines, not to manage pain.
Additional Information:
- Blood pressure management after bypass surgery typically involves medications like vasodilators or beta-blockers to maintain optimal levels.
- Close monitoring is done in the intensive care unit (ICU) immediately after surgery to detect and address fluctuations promptly.
- Patients are also advised to follow a healthy lifestyle, including a low-sodium diet and regular physical activity, to maintain long-term cardiovascular health.
Conclusion:
- The primary reason for monitoring blood pressure closely after bypass surgery is to prevent the collapse of grafts and suture line bleeding, which are critical for the patient’s recovery and survival. Other factors like sleep patterns, renal function, and pain management, while important, are secondary considerations in this context.
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 3:
If a patient’s chest tube drainage exceeds 150 mL postoperatively, what should the nurse do?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Notify the doctor immediately
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 3 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Notify the doctor immediately
Rationale:
- Chest tube drainage is used in postoperative management, especially for patients who have undergone thoracic surgeries, to remove air, fluid, or blood from the pleural space and promote lung expansion.
- Excessive chest tube drainage, such as more than 150 mL within a short period postoperatively, could indicate serious complications, such as hemorrhage, active bleeding, or other abnormalities in the chest cavity.
- Immediate notification of the doctor is crucial because this situation may require urgent medical intervention, such as surgical re-exploration, administration of blood products, or other corrective measures to prevent further complications, such as hypovolemic shock or cardiac arrest.
- The nurse's prompt action ensures that the patient's condition is assessed and managed without delay, reducing the risk of life-threatening consequences.
Explanation of Other Options:
Continue monitoring
- Rationale: While monitoring is an essential part of nursing care, it is insufficient when faced with excessive chest tube drainage. Delaying action by only observing could worsen the patient's condition, as the root cause of the bleeding or fluid accumulation remains unaddressed.
Document and wait
- Rationale: Documentation is important for maintaining accurate records, but simply documenting and waiting is inappropriate in this scenario. Excessive chest tube drainage is a critical finding that requires immediate action, not passive observation.
Clamp the tube
- Rationale: Clamping a chest tube is contraindicated unless specifically ordered by a doctor. Clamping could lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space, resulting in tension pneumothorax or other complications. It is not an appropriate action in this case.
Additional Information:
- Chest tube management is a critical skill in postoperative care. Nurses should be vigilant in observing the amount, color, and consistency of drainage. Any sudden or excessive changes should be reported immediately.
- Other signs to watch for include changes in vital signs (e.g., hypotension, tachycardia), decreased oxygen saturation, or signs of respiratory distress, all of which may indicate complications related to excessive drainage.
- Collaborative care involving the surgical and medical team is essential to ensure the patient’s safety and optimal recovery.
Conclusion:
- Immediate notification of the doctor is the most appropriate action when chest tube drainage exceeds 150 mL postoperatively. It ensures timely intervention and prevents potential complications that could endanger the patient’s life.
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 4:
Which of the following medications is stopped 2–3 days prior to bypass surgery?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Diuretics
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 4 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Diuretics
Rationale:
- Diuretics are typically stopped 2–3 days prior to bypass surgery to avoid complications such as electrolyte imbalances and dehydration. These medications promote the removal of excess fluid from the body, which can lead to decreased blood volume and potential hemodynamic instability during surgery.
- Electrolyte disturbances caused by diuretics, such as hypokalemia (low potassium levels), can increase the risk of arrhythmias during the perioperative period. Maintaining stable electrolyte levels is crucial for the safety of the patient undergoing bypass surgery.
- Another concern is that diuretics can lead to reduced intravascular volume, which may complicate the management of blood pressure and fluid balance during surgery. Discontinuing them in advance allows the body to stabilize fluid and electrolyte levels before the procedure.
Explanation of Other Options:
Aspirin
- Rationale: Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication used to prevent blood clots. However, it is often continued up until the time of surgery in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass surgery to reduce the risk of clot formation. In certain cases, the decision to stop aspirin may depend on the surgeon's judgment and the patient's bleeding risk.
Metformin
- Rationale: Metformin, a medication used to manage type 2 diabetes, is generally stopped 24–48 hours before surgery to reduce the risk of lactic acidosis, especially in patients undergoing procedures requiring anesthesia. While it is discontinued prior to surgery, this is not typically done 2–3 days in advance as with diuretics.
Antacids
- Rationale: Antacids are used to manage acid reflux or heartburn, and they are not typically associated with surgical complications. They are usually not stopped prior to surgery unless specifically contraindicated in a patient’s case.
Conclusion:
- Among the given options, diuretics are the medications that are discontinued 2–3 days before bypass surgery to prevent complications such as electrolyte imbalances, dehydration, and hemodynamic instability. The discontinuation allows for better perioperative management and ensures patient safety during the procedure.
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 5:
What does bright red vomiting after tonsillectomy suggest?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Active hemorrhage
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 5 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Active hemorrhage
Rationale:
- Bright red vomiting after a tonsillectomy suggests active hemorrhage, which is a medical emergency. Tonsillectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils, and while it is generally safe, bleeding is a known complication.
- Active hemorrhage occurs when blood vessels in the surgical site (tonsil bed) reopen or fail to clot properly. This can lead to blood pooling in the throat or stomach, which may be vomited as bright red blood.
- Immediate medical attention is necessary to control the bleeding and prevent complications such as hypovolemia, airway obstruction, or aspiration.
- Patients are typically advised to monitor for signs of bleeding after tonsillectomy, including bright red blood in vomit or excessive bleeding from the mouth, and to seek urgent care if these symptoms occur.
Explanation of Other Options:
Acid reflux
- Rationale: Acid reflux involves the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus, which can cause symptoms like heartburn or regurgitation. While acid reflux might lead to vomiting, it does not typically result in bright red blood. The presence of blood would indicate a more serious issue, such as bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract.
Dehydration
- Rationale: Dehydration is common after tonsillectomy due to inadequate fluid intake caused by pain or discomfort while swallowing. However, dehydration would not cause vomiting of bright red blood. Symptoms of dehydration include dry mouth, dizziness, and reduced urine output, rather than active bleeding.
Conclusion:
- Bright red vomiting after tonsillectomy is a serious indication of active hemorrhage and requires immediate medical intervention. While other options may describe common post-operative symptoms or unrelated conditions, they do not align with the clinical presentation of blood in vomit. Prompt recognition and treatment of active hemorrhage are critical to ensure patient safety.
Top Medical Surgical Nursing MCQ Objective Questions
Arthritis is the disease of ________.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Joints
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 6 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Joints.
- Arthritis is the disease of Joints.
Key Points
- Arthritis:
- The main symptoms of Arthritis are the swelling and tenderness of our joints.
- The other symptoms of arthritis are joint pain and stiffness, which typically become worsen with age.
- Arthritis occurs when your body's immune system attacks the tissues of the body.
- There are two most common types of arthritis:
- Osteoarthritis: Most common type of Arthritis.
- Rheumatoid arthritis: Caused due to attack of the immune system on part of our body.
Additional Information
- Skin:
- The most common form of skin disease is
- Acne
- Eczema
- Psoriasis
- The most common form of skin disease is
- Kidney:
- The most common form of kidney disease is chronic kidney disease.
- Type 1 or type 2 diabetes
- High blood pressure
- The most common form of kidney disease is chronic kidney disease.
- Liver:
- The most common types of liver infection are hepatitis viruses, including:
- Hepatitis A
- Hepatitis B
- Hepatitis C
- The most common types of liver infection are hepatitis viruses, including:
Maximum time of hand hygiene
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : 20-30 Seconds
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 7 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- As per the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines says hand hygiene takes at least 20- 30 seconds. Duration of Hand Hygiene varies as per the type of Handwashing.
Types of Hand Washing
Social Handwashing
- It is the process of cleansing of hands from all the physical debris and to prevent from infectious diseases. It helps to remove the microorganisms from the skin surface. This is preferred when hands are visibly soiled or before eating etc.
- Duration: 20 to 30 seconds with soap and water.
Antiseptic Handwashing
- It is the procedure to maintenance od hand hygiene with the help of Anti Septic Solutions including chlorhexidine and iodine.
- This is used when hands are not visibly soiled and after touching and before touching the patient.
- Duration is at least 20 Seconds.
Surgical Hand Washing
- As the name suggests, this is used prior to sterile operations, including surgical procedures.
- This procedure mainly removes resident microorganisms that live on the surface of the skin in addition to transient microorganisms.
- Immediately after surgical handwashing surgical gloves are donned to prevent microorganisms from returning to the surface of the skin.
- Duration: is for 2–6 minutes
Myopia is corrected by using
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Concave lens
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 8 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is option 2, i.e. Myopia is caused due to excessive curvature of the eye lens and can be corrected by using a concave lens.
- Myopia:
- Also known as near-sightedness.
- The far point is nearer than infinity.
- A person with this defect can see nearby objects but cannot see distant objects distinctly.
- Image of the distant object is formed in front of the retina.
- Arise due to - (a) excessive curvature of the eye lens, (b) elongation of the eyeball.
- Correction - concave lens of suitable power.
- Hypermetropia:
- The focal length of the eye lens is too long and can be corrected by the convex lens of suitable power.
- Presbyopia:
- Decreases the power of accommodation and can be corrected by using bi-focal lenses.
Name the two endocrine glands which secrete their hormones when they receive orders from the pituitary through its hormones.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Thyroid and testis
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 9 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- Endocrine glands lack ducts and are hence, also called ductless glands. Their secretions are called hormones which are directly released into the bloodstream.
- The adrenal cortex produces three main types of steroid hormones: mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and androgens.
- Mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) -> zona glomerulosa ->blood pressure and electrolyte balance.
- Glucocorticoids cortisol and cortisone -> zona fasciculata -> metabolism and immune system suppression.
- Androgens -> zona reticularis -> converted to fully functional sex hormones in the gonads
Regulation:
- Glucocorticoids are under the regulatory influence of the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal HPA axis. Glucocorticoid synthesis is stimulated by the adrenocorticotropic hormone ACTH.
- Mineralocorticoid secretion is regulated mainly by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system RAAS. The juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidneys release the enzyme renin into the blood, which starts reactions that lead to the formation of Angiotensin II. [Mineralocorticoids are not under influence of the pituitary so even if the adrenal gland is endocrine it does not answer]
Explanation:
- The pituitary gland is the master gland of the body as it controls the functioning of many other endocrine glands.
- The pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity called Sella tursica and is attached to the hypothalamus by a stalk.
- It secretes several hormones like growth hormone (GH), prolactin (PRL), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), and luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone, melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH), oxytocin and vasopressin.
- Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) stimulates the synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones from the thyroid gland.
- In males, Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the synthesis and secretion of hormones called androgens from the testis.
Hence, the two endocrine glands which secrete their hormones when they receive orders from the pituitary through its hormones are the thyroid & testis.
Mistake Points In this Question the thyroid and testis are exclusively endocrine and receive their order from the pituitary gland to secrete their hormones. The adrenal gland and part of its secretion are independent of the pituitary.
Conjunctivitis is an infection primarily related to ______.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Eye
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 10 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Eye.
Key Points
- The conjunctiva is a thin, transparent mucous membrane.
- It lines the inner surface of the eyelids and covers the sclera (the white part of the eye).
- The conjunctiva contains glands that produce secretions that help to keep the eyes moist, and antibodies, which reduce infection.
- Conjunctivitis means ‘inflammation of the conjunctiva’.
Additional Information
- It is usual for both eyes to be affected in infectious cases.
- Some causes include:
- The commonest cause is an infection by viruses or bacteria.
- Due to chemical irritants.
- Traditional eye remedies or allergies.
Important Points
- Effects:
- The eyes are red and uncomfortable.
- Make the eyelids stick together.
- The vision is usually not affected.
Minimum & Maximum score of GCS are:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : 3-15
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 11 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- Glasgow Coma Scale is the scoring system used to describe the level of consciousness in a person having a traumatic brain injury. It is used to rule out the level of acute brain injury.
- The minimum score on Glasgow Coma Scale is 3 indicates a deep coma or a brain-dead state. The maximum score is 15 which indicates a fully awake patient.
Components of the Glasgow Coma Scale
- Eye-opening
- Motor Response
- Verbal Responses
Interpretation
Patients with 3 to 8 scores are usually considered to be in coma. Generally, brain injury is classified as:
- Severe: GCS
- Moderate: GCS 8 or 9–12
- Minor: GCS ≥ 13.
Which one of the following is a hormonal disorder caused by high level of cortisol in blood?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Cushing's syndrome
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 12 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFExplanation-
Cushing's syndrome
- It is also known as hypercortisolism.
- It happens when there’s extra cortisol in the body.
- Signs and symptoms are high blood pressure, abdominal obesity etc.
- It can be fatal if untreated.
Additional Information
Acromegaly
- It is a hormonal disorder.
- It happens when the pituitary gland produces too much growth hormone during adulthood.
- Bones size increases which lead to increased height and are called gigantism.
Addison's disease
- It is also called adrenal insufficiency.
- It causes inadequate production of the steroid hormones cortisol and aldosterone.
- Tuberculosis is the most common cause of Addison's disease.
Pituitary dwarfism
- It is also known as growth hormone deficiency.
- It is caused by insufficient amounts of growth hormone (pituitary) in the body.
- It can be congenital or acquired.
Asthma is a chronic disorder that causes
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : inflammation in the airway
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 13 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is inflammation in the airway.
- Asthma is an inflammatory disease of the airways to the lungs which makes breathing difficult and affects some physical activities in humans.
Key Points
- In this disease, the air passages of the lungs become too narrow because of excessive production of mucus.
- The most common symptoms of asthma include wheezing, tightness in the chest, fatigue, coughing, and shortness of breath.
- Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disease that affects the lungs and digestive system.
- It can be life-threatening.
Additional Information
- Pneumonia is an infection that causes the inflammation of the air sacs in one or both lungs. It is caused by a variety of organisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi.
- Tuberculosis (TB) is a contagious infection that attacks our lungs. It is caused by a type of bacteria called Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
An overgrowth of bone and soft tissue is seen in
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Acromegaly
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 14 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFAcromegaly-
- A disorder in adults in which the pituitary gland produces too much growth hormone. This leads to overgrowth of bone known as Acromegaly in adulthood.
- In childhood overproduction of growth hormone leads to an excessive increase in height known as Gigantism.
- Acromegaly is usually caused by a non-cancerous tumor.
- Middle-aged adults are most commonly affected.
- Symptoms include enlargement of the face, hands, and feet.
- Gigantism occurs when there is an increase in the secretion of growth hormone before the fusion of the long bone epiphysis and is characterized by tall stature.
- Acromegaly occurs when hypersecretion of Growth Hormone occurs after the fusion of the epiphysis leading to large extremities and characteristic faces.
- Surgery of the Pituitary Gland cures acromegaly but in some cases, tumor size is so large to remove entirely so radiation therapy is given.
Additional Information
- Cushing Syndrome Defined:
- A metabolic disorder caused by the overproduction of corticosteroid hormones by the adrenal cortex often involves obesity and high blood pressure.
- The most common cause is the use of steroid drugs.
- But it can also occur from an overproduction of cortisol by the adrenal glands.
- Too much cortisol can produce some of the hallmark signs of Cushing syndrome :
- A fatty hump between your shoulders, a rounded face, and pink or purple stretch marks on your skin.
- Lack of iodine causes an abnormal enlargement of the thyroid gland which is called a goitre.
- Thyroid Gland:
- The hormones secreted by it are Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine.
- Iodine is secreted in more quantity.
- Thyroid Gland:
- Tetany is a symptom described as an involuntary contraction of muscles that leads to painful muscle cramps, spasms of the larynx, and sensory disturbances.
Most important site in organ (photograph) for production of gastrin:
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : Antrum
Medical Surgical Nursing Question 15 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- Stomach -> A muscular organ which is located on the left side of the upper abdomen.
- The stomach receives food from esophagus through lower esophageal sphincter.
- The stomach secretes acids and enzymes for the digestion of food.
Explanation:
- G-cells or Gastrin Cells responsible for the synthesis and secretion of gastrin.
- Primarily, gastrin is produced by antrum of the stomach.
- But it can also secreted by the duodenum and pancreas when stimulated by vagal efferent neurons and GRP neurons.
- Functions:
- Enhancing gastric mucosal growth
- Gastric motility
- Secretion of HCL into the stomach.
Additional Information
- Cardia -> Upper portion of the stomach, prevents acidic contents of the stomach from moving upward into the esophagus.
- Fundus -> Dome shaped superior dilation of the stomach, collects digestive gases.
- Duodenum -> This also produces less amount of gastrin.